A new employee has given one of my customers a P45 from his previous job. The P45 is dated September this year but it says he left in March of this year and was at M11 stage.
Should I ignore the P45 and get him to sign a P46 instead (or the new equivalent) and put him on M1/W1 tax?
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Joanne
Winner of Bookkeeper of the Year 2015, 2016 & 2017
Thoughts are my own/not to be regarded as official advice,which should be sought from a suitably qualified Accountant.
You should check out answers with reference to the legal position
Hi Joanne, does it say the leaving date was september? Does he have his final payslip for the 2012-13 year so you can check what figures are on it, and compare?
Sounds like a duplicate from last year but the figures on it may give a clue. Agree with Michelle about checking the final payslip if available but for the sake of expediency I would go the P46 route if time is of the essence.
It says the leaving date was March, so I was assuming duplicate/late production. I will try for a final payslip - I have no idea if he has worked since then but he is a chef and I would be surprised if he hasnt - they tend to bounce around from one place to another quite a lot, which was even more why I thought a P46 M1/w1 approach might be 'safer'.
__________________
Joanne
Winner of Bookkeeper of the Year 2015, 2016 & 2017
Thoughts are my own/not to be regarded as official advice,which should be sought from a suitably qualified Accountant.
You should check out answers with reference to the legal position